(NOTE: if u r unable to get GRE BARON'S 12th edition ,ask me at rajivbiv@gmail.com i can give u the soft copy of it , very important book for apptitude exam)
now i am providing u the test papers for TCS , they are the actual papers......... have ur brain on it.....
TCS conducts an online test which consists of three sections:
Section A: Verbal Ability (32-35 Questions, 20 Minutes): Two Comprehension Passages (5-6 Qs each), Fill in the blanks (5 Questions), Synonyms (10 Questions), Antonyms (10 Questions)
Section B: Quantitative (32-35 Questions, 40 Minutes): Profit & Loss, Simple Interes t, Ages, Probability, Permutation-Combination, Speed, Time & Distance, Work & Time, Percent age, Average, Pipes & Cistern, Mixture & Allegation, Ratio Proportion, Train, Boats & stream, Number system, Pie chart, Bar-graph, Line-graph, Venn Diagrams, Data Sufficiency.
Section C: Reasoning (12-15 Questions, 30 Minutes): 3 analytical reasoning passages (4-5 questions each)
Tip: You can’t switch between different sections during test. There is sectional time limit. You can switch between different questions within a section. There is no negative marking.
This paper contains questions that have appeared in real test. U are advised to practice all these questions thoroughly. also if u can mug up the questions it is benificial,since u will get the same one.
TCS 1 Questions: 84 Time: 90 Mins
Section A: Verbal Aptitude (37 Questions) Time: 20 mins
Directions for questions 1-10: Select the Synonym for the given word from the five options
1. Admonish : a] Reprove b] Hesitate c] Abject d] Acknowledge e] Idealism
2. Divulge : a] Dormant b] Innocuous c] Beat d] Liking e] Reveal
3. Penitence : a] Unromantic b] Remorse c] Miserable d] Tremble e] Moan
4. Caprice : a] Unswerving b] Staunch c] Whimsical d] Elate e] Treacherous
5. Concur : a] Agree b] Look c] Deride d] Scoff e] Jeer
6. Pinnacle : a] foothills b] card game c] pass d] taunt e] peak
7. Plaintive : a] mournful b] senseless c] persistent d] rural e] evasive
8. Misanthrope: a] benefactor b] philanderer c] man-hater d] aesthete e] epicure
9. Garrulous : a] arid b] hasty c] sociable d] quaint e] talkative
10. Banal : a] philosophical b] trite c] dramatic d] heedless e] discussed
Directions for questions 11-20: Select the Antonym for the given word from the five options
11. Veracity : a] Truthfulness b] Mendacity c] Distance d] Philanderer e] Spatial
12. Pejorative : a] Positive b] Legal c] Determining d] Delighting e] Declaiming
13. Quail : a] Penchant b] Become resolute c] Pert d] Replicate e] Brackish
14. Misapprehension: a] Indignation b] Derision c] Intense speculation d] Approximate estimation e] Correct interpretation
15. Abide : a] Retract an offer b] Refuse to endure c] Shield from harm d] Exonerate e] Welcome
16. Irksome : a] interesting b] lazy c] tireless d] devious e] excessive
17. Asperity : a] anguish b] absence c] innuendo d] good temper e] snake
18. Decorum : a] Lucidity b] Flexibility c] Impropriety d] Duplicity e] Severity
19. Vacillation : a] Coarseness b] Simplicity c] Retraction d] Firmness e] Tedium
20. Disparage : a] Resemble b] Eulogize c] Vacillate d] Annoy e] Appear
Directions for questions 21-25: Select the most appropriate choice to Fill in the Blank21. The columnist was very gentle when he mentioned his friends , but he was bitter and even ------- when he discussed people who -------------him. (a) Laconic……infuriated (b)Acerbic……irritated (c) Remorseful……encouraged (d) Militant ……….distressed (e) Stoical………alienated
22. Whereas off Broadway theater over the past several seasons has clearly ------------ a talent for experimentation and improvisation ,one deficiency in the commercial stage of late has been its marked incapacity for ----------.
(a) manifested…..spontaneity (b) lampooned…theatricality (c) cultivated… orthodoxy (d)disavowed …. histrionics (e) betrayed …….burlesque
23. Not only the ---------are fooled by propaganda ;we can all be misled if we are not------------ (a) ignorant….cynical (b) gullible……..wary (c) credulous……headstrong (d) illiterate……mature (e) fatuous …….intelligent
24. Her employers could not complain about her work because she was ---- in the----- of her duties.
(a) derelict……performance (b) importunate……..observance (c) meticulous………postponement
(d) assiduous ……… execution (e) hidebound……..conceptio
25. Neutron stars are believed to be highly compressed remnants of exploding stars (supernovas) and thus ---------- of one of the most ----------processes in nature. (a)causes…..cataclysmic (b) products……..violent (c) examples……..equivocal
(d) justifications……..harsh (e) precursors………dynamic
Directions for questions 26-37: Read the following Comprehension Passages and answer the questions by choosing the right option:
Unlikefully the carefully weighted and planned compositions of Dante, Gothe’s writings have always the sense of immediacy and enthusiasm. He was a constant experimenter with life, with ideas, and with forms of writing. For the same reason his works seldom have the qualities of finish or fo rmal beauty which distinguish the masterpieces of Dante and Virgil. He came to love the b eauties of classicism but these were never an essential part of his make up. Instead , the urgency of the moment , the spirit of the thing , guided his pen.
As a result, nearly all his works have serious flaws of structure, of inconsistenci es, of excess and redundancies and extraneities. In the large sense, Gothe represents the fullest development of romanticist. It has been argued that he should not be so designated because he so clearly matured and outgrew the kind of romanticism exhibited by Wordsworth, Shelley and
Keats. Shelly and Keats died young; Wordsworth lived narrowly and abandoned his early attitudes. In contrast, Gothe lived abundantly and developed hi faith in the spirit, his understanding of nature and human nature and his reliance on feelings as man’s essential motivating force. The result was an all-encompassing vision of reality and a philosophy of life
broader and deeper than the partial visions and attitudes of other romanticist Yet the spirit of youthfulness the impatience with close reasoning or “logic chopping”, and the c ontinued faith in nature remained his to the end, together with an occasional waywardness and impulsiveness and a disregard of artistic or logical proprietary which savor strongly of romantic individualism. Since so many twentieth century thoughts and attitudes are similarly based on the stimulus of the Romantic Movement, Gothe stands as particularly the poet of modern times as Dante stood for medieval times and as Shakespeare for the Renaissance.
26. The title that best expresses the ideas of this passage is (a) Gothe and Dante (b)The Characteristics of Romanticism (c) Classicism versus Romanticism (d) Gothe,the romanticist (e)Gothe’s abundant life
27. A characteristics of romanticism NOT mentioned in this passage is its (a) elevation of nature (b) preference for spontaneity (c) modernity of ideas (d) unconcern for artistic decorum (e) simplicity of language
28. It can be inferred from the passage that classicism has the follwing characteristics
i. Sensitivity towards emotional promptings ii. emphasis on formal aesthetic criteria iii. meticulous planning of artistic works (a) ii only (b) iii only (c) i and ii (d) ii and iii (e) i,ii and iii
At night schools of prey and predator s are almost always spect acularly illuminated by the bioluminescence produced by the microscopic and larger plankton. The reason for ubiquitous production of light by the microorganisms of the sea remains obscure, and suggested explanations are controversial. It has been suggested that light is a kind of inadvertent
by product of life in transparent organisms. It has been hypothesized that the emission of light on disturbance is advantageous the plankton in making the predators of the pl ankton conspicuous to their predators! Unquestionably, it does act this way. Indeed some fisheries base the detection of their prey on the bioluminescence that the fish excite. It is difficult, however, to defend the thesis that this effect was the direct factor in the original development of bioluminescence, since the effect was of no advantage to the individual micro organisms that first developed it. Perhaps the luminescence of a microorganism also discourages attack by light-avoiding predators and is of initial survival benefit to the individual. As it then becomes general in the populat ion, the effect of revealing plankton predators would also become important.
29. The primary topic of the passage is (a) The origin of bioluminescence (b) the disadvantage of bioluminescence in microorganisms (c) The varieties of marine bioluminescent life forms (d)Symbiotic relationships between predators and their prey (e) hypothesis on the causes of bioluminescence in plankton
30. The author mentions the activities of fisheries in order to provide an example of (a) how ubiquitous the phenomenon of bioluminescence is coastally (b) how pred ators do make use of bioluminescence in locating their prey (c) how human intervention imperils bioluminescent micro organi sms (d) how nocturnal fishing expeditions are becoming more and more widespread (e) how limited bioluminescence is as a source of light for human use
31. The passage provides an answer to which of the following questions? (a) what is the explanation for the phenomenon of bio luminescence in human life (b) does the phenomenon of plankton bioluminescence have any practical applications (c) why do only certain specimens of marine life exhibit the phenomenon of bioluminescence (d) how does underwater Bioluminescence differ from atmospheric bioluminescence (e) what are the steps that take place as an individual microorganism becomes bioluminescent. With Meredith’s The Egoist we enter into a critical problem that we have not yet before faced in these studies. That is the problem offered by a writer of recognizably impressive stature, whose work is informed by a muscular intelligence, whose language has splendor, whose “view of life “wins our respect, and yet for whom we are at best able to feel only a passive appreciation which amounts, practically, to indifference, simply avoid dealing with him and thus avoid the problem along with him. He does not “speak to us”, we might say; his meaning is not a “meaning for us”; he “leaves us cold”. But do not the challenge and the excitement of the crit ical problem as such lie in that ambivalence of attitude which allows us to recognize the intelligence and even the splendor of Meredith’s work , while , at the same time , we experiment a lack of sympathy , a failure of any enthusiasm of response?
32. According to the passage , the work of Meredith is noteworthy for its elements of (a)sensibility and artistic fervor (b) ambivalence and moral ambiguity (c) tension and sense of vitality (d) brilliance and linguistic grandeur (e) wit and whims
33. All of the following can be found in the author ‘s discussion of Meredith except (a) an indication of Meredith ‘s customary effect on readers (b) an enumeration of the admirable qualities in his work (c) a selection of hypothetical comments at Meredith’s expression (d) an analysis of the critical ramifications of Meredith’s effect on readers (e) a refutation of the claim that Meredith evokes no sympathy
34. It can be inferred from the passage that the author finds the prospect of appraising Meredith ‘s work critically to be
(a) counter productive (b) extremely formidable (c) somewhat tolerable (d) markedly unpalatable (e) clearly invigorating
Ether injected into gall bladder to dissolve cholesterol based ga llstones. This type one da y treatment is enough for gallstones not for calcium stones. This method is alternative to surgery for millions of people who are suffering from this disease.
35. Calcium stones can be cured in one day a) true b) false c) can t say
36. Hundreds of people contain calcium stones a) true b) false c) cant say
37. Surgery is the only treatment to calcium stones a) true b) false c) cant say
Section B: Quantitative Aptitude (34 questions) Time: 40 mins
38. The amount contributed by Software & IT sector is 180% of the amount contributed by
(a) Steel (b) Auto (c) Ad & media (d) Defense (e) Petroleum.
39. Some work is done by two people in 24 minutes. One of them can do this work alone in 40 minutes. How much time does the second person take to do the same work? (a) 60 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 20 minutes (d) 70 minutes (e) 10 minutes.
40. The lowest temperature in the night in a city A is 1/3 mo re than 1/2 the highest during the da y. Sum of the lowest temperature and the highest temperature is 100 degrees. Then wh at is the low temp?
(a) 20 degrees (b) 30 degrees (c) 40 degrees (d) 50 (e) 65.
41. A salesperson by mistake multiplied a number and got the answ er as 3, instead of dividing the number by 3.What is the answer he should have actually got? (a) 0 (b) 1/3 (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 3.
42. A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after staying fo r 30 minutes at a destination, it returned back to the bus stan d. The destination is 27 miles from the bus sta nd. The speed of the bus is 18mph. During the return journey the bus travels with 50% faster speed. At what time does it return to the bus stand?
(a) 10 a.m. (b) 10.30a.m. (c) 11 a.m. (c) 11.30 a.m. (d) 11 p.m.
43. A is driving on a highway when the police fines him for over speeding and exceeding the limit by 10 km/hr. At the same time B is fined for over speeding by twice the amount by which A exce eded the limit. If he was driving at 35 km/hr what is the speed limit for the road? (a) 10 km/hr (b) 15 km/hr (c) 20 km/hr (d) 25 km/hr (e) 30 km/hr.
44. A tree grows only 3/5 as fast as the one beside it. In four years the combined growth of the two trees is eight feet. How much does the shorter tree grow in two years? (a) Less than 2 feet (b) 2 feet (c) 2 ½ feet (d) 3 feet (e) more than 3 feet.
45. What number should be added to or subtra cted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2.
(a) 20 should be added (b) 20 should be subtracted (c) 10 should be added (d) 10 should be subtracted (e) 15 should be subtracted.
46. A family, planning a weekend trip, decides to spend not more th an a total of 8 hours driving. By leaving early in the morni ng, they can average 40 miles per hour on the way to their destination. Due to the heavy Sunday traffic, they can average only 30 miles per hour on the return trip. What is the farthest dist ance from home they can plan to go?
(a) 120 miles (b) Between 120 and 140 miles (c) 140 miles (d) Between 140 and 160 miles (e) 160 miles or more
47. A car is filled with four and half gallons of fuel for a r ound trip. If the amount of fuel taken while going is 1/4 more than the amount taken for coming, what is the amount of fuel consumed while coming back?
(a) Less than 2 gallons (b) 2 gallons (c) 2 1/2 gallons (d) 3 gallons (e) More than 3 gallons
48. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 30% and the width is decreased by 20%, then the area is increased by
(a) 10% (b) 5% (c) 4% (d) 20% (e)25%
49. ACUTE is coded as ZBTSD then DMFBS is coded as (a) CLEAR (b) CLREA (c) CRLEA (d) CLERA (e) CLEAD.
50. Wind flows at 160 miles in 330 minutes, for traveling 80 miles how much time does it require?
(a) 1 hour 30 minutes (b) 1 hour 45 minutes (c) 2 hours (d) 2 hours 45 minutes (e) 3 hours.
51. If A is traveling at 72 km per hour on a highway. B is trave ling at a speed of 21 meters per second on a highway. What is the difference in their speeds in meters per second? (a) 1/2 m/sec (b) 1 m/sec (c) 1 1/2 m/sec (d) 2 m/s (e) 3 m/s.
52. A stationary engine has enough fuel to run 12 hours when its tank is 4/5 full. How long will it run when the tank is 1/3 full?
(a) Less than 2 hours (b) 2 hours (c) 3 hours (d) 4 hours (e) 5 hours.
53. A 3-gallon mixture contains one part S and two parts R. In order to change it to a mixture containing 25% S, how much R should be added? (a) 1/2 gallon (b) 2/3 gallon (c) 3/4 gallon (d) 1 gallon (e) 1 1/2 gallon.
54. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = 4000 square root(N). If the size of the program is increased by 21% then how much memory size increased? (a) 10 % (b) 0.5% (c) 5 % (d) 1% (e) 15%.
55. From the figure below tell what type of curve it is ?
(a) y= tan x (b) y= cos x (c) y=x (d) y=3+x (e) y= -x.
56. Find the value of %&%&6-%&%6, wher e % denotes ”change of sign” and & denotes "doubling".
(a) 12 (b) -12% (c) 24 (d) -24 (e) 36.
57. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right? (a) O (b) T (c) I (d) N (e) A.
58. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory? (a) 128 (b) 127 (c) 256 (d) 258 (e) 512.
59. In which of the system, decimal number 194 is equal to 1234? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 5 (e) 2.
60. In some game 139 members have participated every time one fellow will get out. What is the number of matches to choose the champion to be held? (a) 139 (b) 140 (c) 138 (d) 137 (e) None of these.
61. Find the result of the following _expression if, M denotes modulus operatio n, R denotes round-o ff, T denotes truncation:
M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8) (a) 89 (b) 90 (c) 19 (d) 21 (e) 20.
62. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power a plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is Rs. 15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/- per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
(a) 30250 (b) 20235 (c) 32250 (d) 22250 (e) 20250.
63. One fast typist type some matter in 2hr and another slow typist type the same matter in 3hr. If both do combine in how much time they will finish? (a) 1hr 12 min (b) 1hr 15 mins (c) 1 hr 30 mins (d) 1 hr. (e) none of these.
64. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs? (w) 3i+2j (x) i+j (y) 2i-3j (z) -7i+j
(a) w and z (b) z and y (c) y and z (d) w and y (e) none of these.
65. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how many days A alone can complete the work? (a) 9.5 days (b) 11 days (c) 21 days (d) 10.5 days (e) none of these.
66. Joe's father will be twice his age 6 years from now. His mother was twice his age 2 years before. If Joe will be 24 two years from now, what is the difference between his father's and mother's age? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10 (e) none of these.
67. How many B’s are followed by G’s which are not followed by S’s in the following series:
B G M P Q B G S K O B G A S B B G D E F B G S T I
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) none of these.
68. One rectangular plate with length 8inches, breadth 11 inches and 2 inches thickness is there. What is the length of the circular rod with diameter 8 inches and equal to volume of rectangular plate? (a) 3.5 inch (b) 4.5 inch (c) 4 inch (d) 5 inch.
69. If Rs20/- is available to pay for typing a research report & typist A produces 42 pages and typist B produces 28 pages. How much should typist A receive? (a) Rs. 12 (b) Rs. 10 (c) Rs. 8 (d) Rs. 5 (e) Rs. 2.
70. A face of the clock is divided into three parts. First part hours total is equal to the sum of the second and third part. What is the total of hours in the bigger part? (a) 2 hrs (b) 4 hrs (c) 6 hrs (d) 8 hrs (e) 10 hrs.
71. In a company 30% are supervisors and 40% employees are male if 60% of supervisors are male. What is the probability? That a randomly chosen employee is a male or female? (a) 0.624 (b) 0.264 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.5 (e) None of these.
Section C: Analytical Reasoning (12 Questions) Time: 30 mins
Directions for questions 72-83: These questions are based on the following piece of information; choose the right option for each question after carefully analyzing the given information
The office staff of the XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookkeepers (A, B and C) and five secretaries (D, E, F, G and H).Management is planning to open a new office in another city using three secretaries and two bookkeepers of the current staff. To do so they plan to separate certain individuals who do not function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office:
I. Bookkeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent as a team to the new office.
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should be separated.
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms for many months. They should not go together.
IV. Since D and F have been competing for promotion, they should not be a team.
72. If A is to be moved as one of the bookkeepers, which of the following cannot be a possible working team?
A] ABDEH B] ABDGH C] ABEFH D] ABEGH E] ABFGH
73. If C and F are moved to the new office, how many combinations are possible?
A] 1 B] 2 C] 3 D] 4 E] 5
74. If C is sent to the new office, which member of the staff cannot go with C?
A] B B] D C] F D] G E] H
75. Under the guidelines developed, which of the following must go to the new office?
A] B B] D C] F D] G E] H
Joe, Larry, Ned, Marry, Paul, Willy, Crystal, Albert, Bob, Frank, Ellen and Rick all lives in the same six- floor building.There are two apartments per floor.No more than two persons live in any apartment.Some apartments may be empty.Larry and his roommate live two floors above Albert and his roommate, Crystal.Joe lives alone, three floors below Willy and two floors bellow Ellen.Mary lives one floor below Albert and Crystal. Ned lives three floors above the floor on which Bob and Frank have single apartments.Rick and Paul live in single apartments two floors below Mary.
76. Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going from the bottom floor to the top?
(A) Rick, Bob, Mary, Albert, Larry, Ned (B) Rick, Frank, Ned, Ellen, Larry, Crystal (C) Paul, Bob, Joe, Crystal, Ned, Larry (D) Larry, Ellen, Albert, Mary, Frank, Rick (E) Larry, Joe, Mary, Albert, Bob, Rick
77. Which of the following pairs must live on the same floor? I. Ned, Ellen II. Joe, Mary III. Albert, Larry
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III
78. Larry’s roommate, assuming that he or she is one of the persons mentioned, is
(A) Ellen (B) Willy (C) Mary (D) Ned (E) Paul
79. Rick lives on the (A) first floor, below Bob or Frank (B) second floor, below Joe or Albert and Crystal (C) third floor,above Mary or Ellen (D) fourth floor, opposite Albert and Crystal (E) sixth floor, opposite Larry and his roommate.
80. An empty apartment or empty apartments may be found on the (A) second floor only
(B) fourth floor only (C) fifth floor only (D) third or sixth floor, but not both (E) fourth or sixth floor or both.
After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to five (A,B,C,D and E). It was announced that finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held. The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure.
1. The interviews will be held once a week.
2. Three candidates will appear at any all-day interview session.
3. Each candidate will appear at least once.
4. If it is necessary to call applicants for additional interviews, no more than one such applicant should be asked to appear the next week.
5. Because of the details in the written applications, it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.
6. Because of the travel difficulties, it was agreed that C will appear for only one interview. 84. Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee?
I. After the second interview, all applicants have appeared at least once.
II. The committee sees each applicant a second time.
III. If a third session is held it is possible for applicants to appear at least twice.
81. At the first interview, the following candidates appear: A, B and D. Which of the following combinations can be called for the interview to be held the next week?
A] BCD B] CDE C] ABE D] ABC E] ADE
82. Which of the following is a possible combination for interviews in two consecutive interviews?
A] ABC, BDE B] ABD, ABE C] ADE, ABC D] BDE, ACD E] CDE, ABC
83. If A, B and D appear at the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week, which the two candidates may be asked to appear with D? I. A II. B III. C IV. E
A] I and II B] I and III C] II and III D] II and IV E] III and IV
84. Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee?
I. After the second interview, all applicants have appeared at least once.
II. The committee sees each applicant a second time.
III. If a third session is held it is possible for applicants to appear at least twice.
A]I only B] II only C] I and II only D] III only E]
All the Best! meet u at TCS
the answers of this paper will be posted soon ....if u r in hurry mail at rajivbiv@gmail.com me to get the answers..
THE SECOND SET OF TCS (WHOLE TEST PAPER)
Section A: Verbal Aptitude (37 Questions) Time: 20 mins
Directions for questions 1-10: Select the Synonym for the given word from the five options
1. Mawkish: a] sentimental b] true c] certain d] devious e] carefree
2. Mediocre: a] average b] bitter c] medieval d] industrial e] agricultural
3. Misdemeanor: a] felony b] peccadillo c] indignity d] fiat e] illiteracy
4. Copious: a] plentiful b] cheating c] dishonorable d] Adventurous e] inspired
5. Contraband: a] purpose b] rogue c] rascality d] difficulty e] smuggling
6. Condone: a] build b] evaluate c] pierce d] infuriate e] overlook
7. Décolleté: a] flavored b] demure c] flowery d] low-necked e] sweet
8. Sinister: a] unwed b] ministerial c] evil d] returned e] splintered
9. Frugality: a] foolishness b] extremity c] indifference d] enthusiasm e] economy
10. Baneful: a] intellectual: b] thankful c] decisive d] poisonous e] remorseful
Directions for questions 11-20: Select the Antonym for the given word from the five options
11. Misapprehension: a] indignation b] derision c] intense speculation d]approximate e]correct interpretation
12. Extirpate: a] dilate b] implicate c] proliferate d] expostulate e] incriminate
13. Odium: a] fragrance b] monotony c] idiosyncrasy d] veneration e] vigilance
14. Lucid: a] ornate b] arrogant c] embroiled d] hapless e] obscure
15. Repudiate: a] mislead b] minimize c] ascertain d] isolate e] accept
16. Demise: a] integrity b] irritation c] birth d] excess e] surmise
17. Probity: a] fallacy b] improbability c] conviction d] depravity e] avidity
18. Gauche: a] grotesque b] tactful c] rightful d] fashionable e] inane
19. Hapless: a] fortuitous b] fortunate c] fortified d] forbidden e] forestalled
20. Prolixity: a] near b] disinclination c] circuitousness d] extremity e] terseness
Directions for questions 21-25: Select the most appropriate choice to Fill in the Blank
21. 21. Although he was generally considered an extremely ------------- individual, his testimony at the trail revealed that he had been very --------------------.
A] intrepid-valiant B] guileless-hypocritical C] abstemious-temperate D] meek-timorous
E] ingenuous- obtuse
22. The perpetual spinning of particles is much like that of a top , with one significant difference : unlike the top , the particles have no need to wound up , for --------------is one of their ---------------- properties.
A] revolution-radical B] motion-intangible C] rotation-intrinsic D] acceleration-lesser
E] collision- hypothetical
23. Perry’s critics in the scientific world ------------- that many of the observations he ha made during more than a decade of research in costa rica have been reported as ------------in popular magazines rather than as carefully documented case studies in technical journals.
A] intimate-hypotheses B] charge- anecdotes C] applaud- rumors D] claim-scholarship
E] apologize – fabrications
24. Although he did not consider himself -----------, he felt that the inconsistencies in her story -------------- a certain degree of incredulity on his part.
A] an apostate-justified B] an optimist- intimated C] a hypocrite-demostrated D] a charlatan-dignified E] a skeptic – warranted
25. For centuries, physicists have had good reason to believe in the principle of equivalence propounded by Galileo: it has ---------- many rigorous tests that -------------- its accuracy to extra ordinary precision.
A] endured-compromised B] passed – presupposed C] borne – postulated D] survived – proved
E] inspired – equated
Directions for questions 26-37: Read the following Comprehension Passages and answer the questions by choosing the right option:
We now know that what constitutes practically all of matter is empty space ; relatively enormous voids in which revolve with lightning velocity infinitesimal particles so utterly small that they have never seen or photographed. Mathematical physicists have demonstrated the existence of these partic les and their operations determined by ingenious laboratory experiments .It was not until 1911 that experiments by sir Ernest Rutherford revealed the architecture of the mysterious atom. Moseley, Bohr, Fermi, Millikan , Compton , Urey, and others have also worked on the problem.
Matter is composed of molecules whose averag e diameter is about 1/125 millionth of an inch. Molecules are composed of atoms so small that abou t 5 million could be placed in row on th e period at the end of this sentence . Long thought to be ultimate , indivisible constituent of matter , the atom has been found to consist roughly of a proton , the positive electrical element in the atomic nucleus , surrounded by electrons , the negative electric elements swirling about
the proton.
26. According to the passage , all of the following were true of the centre of the atom except that it A]had not yet been seen by the naked eye B] contained elements tat were positively charged
C] was very little larger than a molecule D] followed experimentally determinable process
E] was smaller than 1 / 125 millionth of an inch
27. By referring to the period at the end of the sentence of the underlined section above , the author intends to point up the atom’s
A] density B] mystery C] velocity D] consistency E] minuteness
28. Which of the following relationships most closely parallels the relationship between the proton and the electrons described in the passage?
A] a hawk to its prey B] a blueprint to a framework C] a planet to its satellite
D] a magnet to iron fillings E] a compound to its elements
By passing more and more regulations allegedly to protect the environment, the state is driving the manufacturing industry away. And when the employers leave , the workers will follow. The number of new no-growth or environmental rules passed each year is increasing by leaps and bounds. Rich environmentalists who think that they are sympathetic to workers have no real sympathy for the blue-collar employees who are injured by their activities. One major manufacturer has been fined for failing to establish a car-pool plan. Another is accused of polluting the air with industrial emissions, although everyone knows that two thirds of the pollutants come from cars and trucks. No wonder the large manufacturers
are moving to sates with fewer restrictive laws and as the manufacturing go, unemployment and the number of workers leaving the state will rise more rapidly than ever before.
29. The author’s argument that the strict environmental laws will eventually lead to loss of workers in the state will be most weakened if it can be shown that
A] so far , the number of manufacturers who have left the state is small
B] the unemployment rate has climbed steadily in last three years
C] most workers who leave the state give as their reason for leaving the poor environmental quality
D] several other manufacturing states have restrict environmental laws
E] rich environmentalists are more powerful in many other states
30. Which one of the following is NOT an argument of this passage
A] Environmentalists are responsible for depriving workers of their jobs
B] When workers leave a state, it is a sign tat manufacturers will follow
C] a car-pool law should not be enforced , as cars and trucks are responsible for most of the air pollution
D] Large manufacturers prefer states with fewer restrictions
E] A rise in unemployment will lead to an increase in workers leaving the state
31. Grades on mid term test in Mr. Walsh chemistry class ranged from 68 to 97 .Any student who received below 75 or did not hand in all of the required lab reports must complete an extra credit project. If the above statement are true , which of the following statements must also be true ?
A] a student who earned an 83 on the mid term ad who handed in all the labs , may not do the extra credit project
B] most of the students in the class will not have to do the extra credit project
C] any student may , but is not required to , do the extra credit project
D] if john did all his labs and earned a 72 on the mid term , he will have to do the extra credit project
Alphine tunnels are closed tunnels. In the past 30 yrs not even a single accident has been recorded for there is one accident in the rail road system. Even in case of a fire accident, it is possible to shift the passengers into adjacent wagons and even the live fire can be detected and extinguished with in the duration of 30 min.
32. No accident can occur in the closed tunnels
A] true B] false C] can’t say D] data insufficient E] none of these
33. Fire is allowed to live for 30 min
A] true B] false C] can’t say D] data insufficient E] none of these
34. All the care that travel in the tunnels will be carried by rail shutters
A] true B] false C] can’t say D] data insufficient E] none of these
Modern Governments tend to attack and destroy the self respect of human beings. Little by little, they transform human beings into mare objects, conscious of themselves as such and forced in the end to despair of themselves. This happens not merely at the intellectual level but in the very depths of soul. These are the people who have lost their souls. ‘Self Possession’ is to have faith in the inner tribunal of conscience, a tribunal inviolate and indeed involved by any intrusion N of external power, an inalienable inner sovereignty, an absolute possession of the self by the self. There is in us, a level of being, an order of reality, a spark of spirit.
35. The two types of people, as inferred the extract are_________
A] The Government & the civilians B] The holy & the evil C) Those who have self dignity & those who have lost it D) God & human beings E) All of the above
36. What do understand by the phrase ‘to despair of themselves’?
A) To loose self confidence B) To be demoralized C) To look down upon oneself D) To be frustrated E) All of the above
37. What is the damage the Government causes?
i) Destroys the self respect of human being
ii) Looses self possession
iii) Enhances inner sovereignty
A) i only B) ii only C) iii only D) i & ii E) ii & iii
Section B: Quantitative Aptitude (34 questions) Time: 40 mins
38. A frog starts climbing 15 feet wall. Each hour he climbs 3 feet and rests for 30 minutes. During rest, he slips back 2 feet. How many hours does the frog take to reach the top? (a) 19 hrs (b) 19.5 hrs (c) 20 hrs (d) 21 hrs (e) none of these
39. A class of 100 students. 24 of them are girls and 32 are not. Which base am I using? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6
40. The matrix of a(7,9) was given. The address of the first byte of a(1,1)=3000.it takes 4 bytes to store the number. Then calculate the address of the last byte of a(5,8). (a) 3212 (b) 3022 (c) 3176 (d) 5520 (e) none of these
41. When asked what the time is, a person answered that the amount of time left is 1/5 of the time already completed. What is the time? (a) 8 p.m. (b) 8 a.m. (c) 12 p.m. (d) 12 a.m. (e) none of these
42. What is the max possible 3 digit prime number? (a) 999 (b) 251 (c) 253 (d) 997 (e) 127
43. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the ra te of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20 milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?
(a) 200 ms (b) 20 ms (c) 30 (d) 300 (e) none of these
44. My flight takes of at 2 AM from a pl ace at 18N10E and landed 10 Hrs later at a pl ace with coordinates 36N70W. What is the local time when my plane landed? (a) 6:00 am b) 6:40am c) 7:40 d) 7:00 e) 8:00
45. Gavaskar average in first 51 innings was 51. After the 52 nd innings his average was 52 how many runs did he make in the 52nd innings? (a) 103 (b) 101 (c) 100 (d) 51 (e) 52
46. Select the odd one out. (a) Java (b) Lisp (c) Smalltalk (d) Eiffel (e) JSP
47. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance? (a) 315 (b) 215 (c) 312 (d) 300
48. Two trains 200 km from each other are moving at the speed of 50 km/hour to encounter. From one train a fly takes off, flying straight (upon the rails) to the other train at the speed of 75 km/hour, bounces away from it and flies back to the first train. This is repeated till the trains cr ash to each other and the fly is smashed. What distance is the fl y able to fly until its judgment
moment? (a) 150 km (b) 100 km (c) 115 km (d) 125 km (e) none of these
49. If a man can swim downstream at 6kmph and upstream at 2k mph, his speed in still water is:
(a) 4kmph (b) 2kmph (c) 3kmph (d) 2.5kmph (e) none
50. Diophantus's youth lasted 1/6 of his life. He had the first be ard in the next 1/12 of his life. At the end of the following 1/7 of his life Diophantus got married. Five years fr om then his son was born. His son lived exac tly 1/2 of Diophantus's life. Diophantus died 4 years after the death of his son. How long did Diophantus live?
(a) 78 (b) 84 (c) 54 (d) 100 (e) none of these
51. A traveler walks a certain distance. Had he gone half a kilome ter an hour faster \, he would have walked it in 4/5 of the time, and had he gone half a Kilometer an hour slower, he would have walked 2 ½ hr longer. What is the distance?
a) 10 Km b) 15 Km c) 20 Km d) data Insufficient (e) none
52. A ship leaves on a long voyage. When it is 18 miles from the shore, a seaplane, whose speed is 10 times that of the ship, i s sent to deliver mail. How far from the shore, does the seaplane catch up with the ship?
a) 24 miles b) 25 miles c) 22miles d) 20 miles e) none of these
53. In a circular racetrack of length 100 m, three persons A, B and C start together. A and B start in the same direction at speeds of 10 m/s and 8 m/s respectively. While C runs in the opposite at 15 m/s. When will all the three meet for the first time on the after the start?
a) After 4 s b) After 50 s c) After 100 s d) After 200 s (e) non of these
54. Amal bought 5 pens, 7 pencils and 4 erasers. Rajan bought 6 pens, 8 erasers and 14 pencils for an amount which was half more than what Amal had paid. What % of the total amount paid by Amal was paid for pens? a) 37.5% b) 62.5% c) 50% d) 37% (e) none of these
55. A non stop bus to Amritsar overtakes an auto also moving to wards Amritsar at 10 am. The bus reaches Amritsar at 12.30 pm and starts on the return journey after 1 hr. On the way, back it meets the auto at 2 pm. At w hat time the auto will reach Amritsar? a) 2.30pm b) 3.00pm c) 3.15pm d) 3.30pm (e) none of these
56. The cost of one pencil, two pens and four erasers is Rs.22 while the cost of five pencils, four pens and two erasers is Rs.32.How much will three pencils, three pens and three erasers cost? (a) 27 (b) 25 (c) 32 (d) 33 (e) none of these
57. A car has run 20000 miles using 5 tyres interchangeably. If all the tyres were used equally in sustaining this mileage, then how many miles did each tyre sustain? (a) 4000 miles (b) 5000 miles (c) 20000 miles (d) 16000 miles (e) data insufficient
58. A clock takes 7 seconds to strike 7.How long will the same clock take to strike 10? (a) 9.5 (b) 10 (c) 10.5 (d) 11 (e) non e of these
59. There are 100 wine glasses .I offered my servant to 3 paisa for every glass to be delivered safely and forfeit 9 paisa for every glass broken. At the end of day, he received Rs 2.40.How many glasses did he break? (a) 20 (b) 73 (c) 5 (d) 8 (e) 80
60. A standard sized cigarette can be rolled out with 6 cigarette butts. How many cigarettes can be rolled out for 36 cigarette s?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) 10
61. A certain distance is covered by traveling at 60 kmph for a part of the distance and at a 45 kmph for the remaining distanc e. If the distance traveled a car at the speed of 60 kmph is two-thirds the distance traveled by it at the speed of 45 kmph, calculat e the average speed of the entire journey?
. (a) 45 kmph (b) 50 kmph (c) 37 kmph (d) 60 kmph (e) 70 kmph
63. A is 20 percent more efficient than B. If the two persons can complete a piece of work in 60 days, in how many days A working alone can complete the work? (a) 80 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 110 (e) 22
64. What number should be subtracted from each of 42,61,18,25 so that the remainders are in proportional? (a) 3 (b) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0 (e) none of these
65. Due to the severe financial setback, a family wanted to reduce the expenditure on rice by 19 % .But due to the severe drought , the price of rice went up by 8 %. By what percentage should the consumption of ri ce be reduced by the family to achieve the desired result? (a) 27 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) 25 (e) none
66. In an examination series, which consists of 5 exams, Ar vind scored an average of 60 marks in the first 3 exams and an average of 70 in the last 4 exam s, what is the average score of Arvind for the first and last two exams if his average score of all the five exams is 65?(a) 65 (b) 63 1/3 (c) 60 (4) 62
67. On a certain island, 5% of the 10000 inhabitants are one-legged and half of the others go barefooted. What is the least no. of shoes needed in the island? (a) 10000 (b) 500 (c) 9500 (d) data insufficient (e) none of these
68. A property was originally on a 99 year lease and two thirds of the time passed is equal to the four fifths of the time to c ome. How many years are there to go? (a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 55 (e) 45
69. In 8*8 chess board what is the total number of squares? (a) 64 (b) 16 (c) 204 (d) 248 (e) 264
70. g[0]=1,g[1]=-1,g[n]=2*g[n-1]-3 *g[n-2] then calculate g[4]= ? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4
71. When I become as old as my father is now, I will be 5 time s the age of my son. In addition, my son will be 8 yrs older than what I am now. If the sum of my father’s age and my age is equal to100. How old is my son now? (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (e) none of these
Section C: Analytical Reasoning (12 Questions) Time: 30 mins
Directions for questions 72-83: These questions are based on the following piece of information; choose the right option for each question after carefully analyzing the given information
Airdale, Boxer , Collie and Doberman win top for prizes in the kennel show. Their owners are Mr. Edwards , Mr. Foster , Mr. Grossman and Mrs. Huntley not necessarily in that order. Their dogs names are Jack , Kelly , Lad and Max not necessarily in that order.
a) Mr. Grossman ‘s dog wins neither first nor second prize.
b) The collie wins first prize.
c] Max wins second prize
d] The Airdale is jack
e] Mr. Foster’s dog, the Doberman wins fourth prize.
f] Ms. Huntley ‘s dog is Kelly
72. First prize is won by a] Mr. Edward’s dog b] Mr. Huntley’s dog c] Max d] Jack e] Lad
73. Mr. Grossman ‘ s dog a] is the collie b] is the boxer c] is the airdale d] wins second prize e] is Kelly
74. In which of the following are the dogs correctly listed in the descending order of their prizes
I. Kelly; Airdale; Mr. Edwards dog
II. The Boxer, Mr. Grossman ‘s dog ; Jack
III. Mr. Edwards dog; the airdale; Lad a] I only b] II only c] III only d] I and II only e] II and III only
75. Lad a] is only by Mr. Foster b] is owned by Mr. Edwards c] is the Boxer d] is the collie e] wins third prize
THE Hotel Miramar has two wings , the East wings and the West wings. Some East wing rooms, but not all, have an ocean view. All West Wing rooms have a harbor view. The charge for all rooms is identical, except as follows:
There is an extra charge for all harbor view rooms on or above the third floor.
There is extra charge for all ocean view rooms, except those without balcony.
Some harbor view rooms on the first two floors and some east wing rooms without ocean view have kitchen facilities , for which there is an extra charge.
Only the ocean view and harbor view rooms have balconies.
76. A guest may avoid extra charge by requesting
A] a west wing room on one of the first two floors B] a west wing room on the fourth floor without balcony
C] an east wing room without an ocean view D] an east wing room without balcony E] any room without kitchen facilities
77. Which of the following must be true if all the conditions are satisfied
A] all rooms above the third floor involve an extra charge. B] no room without an ocean or harbor view of kitchen facilities involve an extra charge C] there is no extra charge for any east wing room without an ocean view D] there is no extra charge for any room without kitchen facilities E] there is an extra charge for all rooms with an ocean or harbor view
78. Which of the following must be false if all conditions are satisfied.
A] some ocean view rooms do not involve an extra charge B] all room with kitchen facilities involve an extra charge
C] some west wing rooms above the second floor do not involve an extra charge D] some harbor view rooms do not involve an extra charge E] some rooms without a balcony or kitchen facilities involve an extra charge
79. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the information given above.
I. Whether there are any rooms without a balcony for which an extra charge is imposed
II. Whether any room without a kitchen or a view involves an extra charge
III. Whether two extra charges are imposed for any room
A] I only B] II only C] I and III only D] II and III only E] I , II and III
Every night at Pirandello’s, the owner,Carlo, chooses five dinner specials, each one from a different one of the seven categories-beef,chicken,duck,fish,pasta,seafood and veal.In making his decision each night Carlo always adheres to the following condition: He chooses exactly one poultry dish:chicken or duck. Whenever there is fish special , there is also a pasta special. Duck is never offered on a night when there is beef special.
80. On a night when carlo offers a beef special , which of the following must be offered?
A] chicken B] duck C] fish D] pasta E] veal
81. Which of the following could be a list of the five specials for one night?
A] beef, chicken, duck , pasta , fish B] beef, fish , pasta , fish , seafood , veal
C] beef , chicken , fish, seafood, veal D] beef , duck , fish ,pasta , veal E] beef, chicken ,fish ,pasta , seafood
82. If there is no chicken special one night , which is the other dish that is not on special?
A] beef B] duck C] pasta D] seafood E] veal
83. One night Carlo decides to offer only four specials , one of which is beef. In how many ways can he make up the list of specials? A] 2 B] 3 C] 4 D] 5 E] 6
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